Note to the commenters: You can’t defend replacing (as opposed to supplementing) race-based affirmative action with class-based programs by compared rich Blacks to poor Whites. For that claim to be valid, the axis of comparison has to be the equal position of poor Blacks to poor Whites. Otherwise, you’re risking just masking the effects of potential racial discrimination that wealth can “buy off”, but which still become an extra obstacle on top of poverty to poor Blacks without means.